BIOL 237 Sample Test 2B

1 through 5 Matching: Use each answer once only.

(A) symphyses, (B) synchondroses, (C) syndesmoses, (D) amphiarthroses,

(E) synarthroses.

1. Sutures are non-movable examples of this type of joint.

2. The tibia-fibular and clavicle-acromion joints are examples of this type.

3. All semi-movable joints are called this.

4. These are barely or non movable cartilaginous joints.

5. Name given to the intervertebral disks.


6 through 10 Matching: Use each answer once only.

(A) abduction, (B) flexion, (C) rotation, (D) circumduction, (E) supination.

6. This is the only movement exhibited by a pivot joint.

7. Lateral movement away from the midline.

8. Lowering the chin to the chest.

9. A combination of four movements in sequence.

10. Moving the palm to the ventral position.


11 through 15 Matching: Use each answer once only.

(A) ball-and-socket joint, (B) hinge joint, (C) pivot joint, (D) condyloid joint,

(E) gliding joint.

11. A non-axial joint.

12. The joint capable of movements in many axes.

13. Flexion and extension are the only movements possible at this joint.

14. The axis-atlas is this type of joint.

15. The occipital bone-atlas is this type of joint.


16 through 20 Matching: Answers may be used more than once..

(A) osteoarthritis, (B) rheumatoid arthritis, (C) gouty arthritis, (D) bursitis

16. An inability to metabolize uric acid causes this.

17. A deterioration of the articular cartilage occurring with age or extreme use.

18. An inflammation of synovial membranes surrounding tendons and ligaments.

19. An inflammation of a joint's synovial membrane followed by invasion of fibrous tissue and eventually immobilization of the joint.

20. The most common type of arthritis.


21 through 25 Matching: Use each answer once only.

(A) meniscus, (B) anterior cruciate ligament, (C) tibial collateral ligament,

(D) patellar ligament, (E) medial and lateral patellar retinaculum.

21. A continuation of the tendon of the quadriceps muscle, inserts on the tibial tuberosity

22. A cartilaginous pad which cushions and absorbs shock

23. Helps to prevent forward sliding of the tibia on the femur

24. Helps to prevent rotation and lateral displacement of the knee

25. Medial and lateral to the patella, stabilize the joint capsule


26. (A) True, (B) False. Arranged from largest to smallest, the units of muscle structure are:

Fascicle, fiber, myofibril, sarcomere, myofilament.

27. (A) True, (B) False. A muscle can both push and pull to perform an action.

28. A) True, (B) False. When acting as an antagonist, a muscle is totally relaxed and without tone.

29. A) True, (B) False. Synergistic muscles cannot perform any action together which is not the same as what they do independently.

30. The type of muscle which has many nuclei in each cell is:

(A) skeletal, (B) cardiac, (C) smooth, (D) both A and B, (E) both B and C.

31. Individual skeletal muscle cells are surrounded by connective tissue called:

(A) epimysium, (B) endomysium, (C) perimysium, (D) sarcolemma, (E) sarcomere.

32. The cell membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the:

(A) epimysium, (B) endomysium, (C) perimysium, (D) sarcolemma, (E) sarcomere.

33. Skeletal muscles are named based on each of the following except:

(A) shape, (B) location, (C) origin/insertion, (D) action, (E) strength.

34. The smallest units which can shorten or contract are the:

(A) muscle cells, (B) fasciculi, (C) sarcomeres, (D) actin and myosin proteins.

35. Light areas occurring between the dark striations of a muscle fiber are called:

(A) A bands, (B) I bands, (C) H zones, (D) z lines, (E) both B and C

36. When muscle contraction occurs the disappears.

(A) A bands, (B) I bands, (C) H zones, (D) z lines, (E) both B and C

37. Which of the following is not a usual result of exercise:

(A) increased capacity and efficiency of the respiratory system.

(B) increased capacity and efficiency of the circulatory system.

(C) increase in the number of muscle cells

(D) increase in the number of myofibrils within muscle cells.

38. The metabolic pathway which results in the production of two net ATP per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is:

(A) Krebs cycle, (B) glycolysis, (C) fermentation, (D) electron transport.

39, 40. When oxygen is unavailable the pyruvic acid from #38 is converted to (39) in the process known as:

For 39: (A) acetyl group, (B) acetyl-CoA, (C) lactic acid, (D) oxaloacetic acid.

For 40: (A) Krebs cycle, (B) glycolysis, (C) fermentation, (D) electron transport.


41 through 45: Determine in each case if the description applies to:

(A) red muscle fibers, (B) white muscle fibers

41. Primary energy fuel is fat.

42. Store abundant glycogen for conversion to glucose.

43. Large diameter fibers have both high strength and high speed.

44. Fatigue rapidly.

45. Abundant in the postural muscles.


46 through 49: Rate the relative amounts of ATP produced by each pathway listed.

(A) large amount of ATP (~34), (B) a small amount of ATP (2), (C) no ATP.

46. Glycolysis

47. Krebs cycle

48. Fermentation

49. Electron transport.


50. The period of time immediately after stimulation during which a muscle cell cannot respond to another stimulus is the:

(A) latent period, (B) relaxation phase, (C) contraction phase, (D) refractory period.

51. The delay observed between stimulus and response of a muscle is the:

(A) latent period, (B) relaxation phase, (C) contraction phase, (D) refractory period.

52. A muscle contraction which builds tension but in which the muscle does not shorten is:

(A) isometric, (B) isotonic, (C) eccentric, (D) antagonistic.

53. Muscles which perform less precise movements, e.g. the postural muscles, will have motor units with: (A) 10 or fewer cells, (B) 100 or more cells.

54. The substance which stores oxygen for endurance in muscle cells is:

(A) creatine phosphate, (B) myoglobin, (C) lactic acid, (D) ATP

55. In stimulus-contraction coupling calcium ions bind to to trigger muscle contraction.

(A) actin, (B) tropomyosin, (C) troponin, (D) myosin.

56. Calcium ions apparently act to:

(A) increase the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma

(B) release the inhibition on the Z-disks

(C) remove the blocking action on the tropomyosin

(D) cause ATP binding to actin.

57. An elaborate network of membranes in skeletal muscles which functions in calcium storage:

(A) mitochondria, (B) sarcoplasmic reticulum, (C) myofibril network, (D) sarcolemma

58. After nerve stimulation of the muscle has ceased the calcium:

(A) is destroyed by cholinesterase

(B) binds to the myosin filaments

(C) level drops as it is pumped back into the intenal membranes of the muscle

(D) level drops as it is pumped into the extracellular fluid.

59. Acetylcholine directly causes:

(A) depolarization of the sarcolemma

(B) release of calcium from the sarcolemma

(C) binding of actin to myosin

(D) release of creatine phosphate from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

60. Acetylcholinesterase (ACHase):

(A) breaks the actin-myosin crossbridges

(B) breaks down acetylcholine to remove it from the Ach receptors

(C) causes hydrolysis of ATP

(D) causes the myosin heads to cock and reset.

61. An anti-cholinesterase poison such as nerve gas results in:

(A) muscle receptors blocked due to insufficient acetylcholine

(B) muscle receptors blocked due to too much acetylcholine

(C) competition for the muscle receptors by the poison and Ach

(D) hydrolysis of ATP preventing the release of actin-myosin crossbridges.



Questions 62-64 refer to Figure 1below.

62. Figure 1 shows:

(A) quantal summation, (B) wave summation, (C) treppe, (D) tetany.

63. In Figure 1 the increase in response is due to:

(A) increased numbers of cells or motor units with each stronger stimulus.

(B) increase in contraction of a given set of cells or motor units.

64. Such a response (A) would, or

(B) would not, be a normal way in which your muscles might exhibit graded contractions.

Questions 65-67 refer to Figure 2 below:

65. The response seen in Figure 2 at A is called:

(A) quantal summation, (B) wave summation, (C) treppe, (D) tetany.

66. The response seen at Figure 2 B is called:

(A) quantal summation, (B) wave summation, (C) treppe, (D) tetany.

67. Which of these responses, A or B, is typical of normal muscle movements.

(A) A only, (B) B only, (C) both A and B, (D) neither A nor B.


68. A muscle whose tendon fuses with that of the latissimus dorsi and which inserts along with the latissimus dorsi on the anterior humerus is the:

(A) infraspinatus, (B) supraspinatus, (C) teres major, (D) teres minor, (E) trapesius.

69. The muscles mentioned in # 68 act synergistically to

(A) abduct the humerus, (B) adduct and medially rotate the humerus,

(C) adduct and laterally rotate the humerus, (D) adduct the scapula.

70. The muscle antagonistic to the above would be:

(A) infraspinatus, (B) supraspinatus, (C) teres major, (D) teres minor, (E) trapesius

71 through 73 Matching: Use each answer once only.

(A) extensor carpi radialis longus, (B) extensor carpi ulnaris, (C) extensor digitorum,

(D) palmaris longus, (E) brachioradialis.

71. A flexor of the forearm.

72. Extends and adducts the wrist

73. Extends and abducts the wrist

74. Extends the fingers and wrist

75. Flexes the wrist


76 through 78 Choose from the following:

(1) quadratus lumborum, (2) erector spinae, (3) iliopsoas, (4) gluteus maximus.

76. Postural muscle(s) extend the vertebral column:

(A) 1 only, (B) 2 only, (C) both 1 and 2, (D) all of these, (E) 1, 2, and 3 only.

77. Extends the thigh.

(A) 1 only, (B) 2 only, (C) 3 only, (D) 4 only, (E) 1, 2, and 4.

78. Antagonist of #77.

(A) 1 only, (B) 2 only, (C) 3 only, (D) 4 only, (E) 1, 2, and 4.

Answers:

1 E 11 E 21 D 31 B 41 A 51 A 61 B 71 E
2 C 12 A 22 A 32 D 42 B 52 A 62 A 72 B
3 D 13 B 23 B 33 E 43 B 53 B 63 A 73 A
4 B 14 C 24 C 34 C 44 B 54 B 64 A 74 C
5 A 15 D 25 E 35 B 45 A 55 C 65 B 75 D
6 C 16 C 26 A 36 E 46 B 56 C 66 D 76 C
7 A 17 A 27 B 37 C 47 B 57 B 67 B 77 D
8 B 18 D 28 B 38 B 48 C 58 C 68 C 78 C
9 D 19 B 29 B 39 C 49 A 59 A 69 B
10 E 20 A 30 A 40 C 50 D 60 B 70 B